Which of the following is an outward sign of overreaction?
A. Weakness
B. Argumentativeness
C. Nausea
D. Confusion
Answer:
Which of the following is an outward sign of overreaction?
A. Weakness
B. Argumentativeness
C. Nausea
D. Confusion
A. Weakness
B. Argumentativeness
C. Nausea
D. Confusion
An athlete that is having sleep disorders, depression, emotional instability, increased sweating, disturbed appetite and digestion is showing signs of:
An athlete that is having sleep disorders, depression, emotional instability, increased sweating, disturbed appetite and digestion is showing signs of:
A. Catecholamine reduction syndrome
B. Overtraining
C. Overreaction
D. Sudden exercise abstinence syndrome
Answer:
The method of relaxation characterized by recognizing muscular tension and consciously releasing that tension is the _____ method.
The method of relaxation characterized by recognizing muscular tension and consciously releasing that tension is the _____ method.
A. Williams
B. Benson
C. Jacobson
D. Thomas
Answer:
A psychological skills training technique used to quell an active mind is:
A psychological skills training technique used to quell an active mind is:
A. Progressive muscle relaxation
B. "Fight or flight" response
C. Meditation
D. Psychoanalysis
Answer:
In performing progressive muscle relaxation, the athlete must first tense the muscles for _____ seconds, and then relax them for _____ seconds.
In performing progressive muscle relaxation, the athlete must first tense the muscles for _____ seconds, and then relax them for _____ seconds.
A. 5-7; 10-15
B. 5-7; 20-30
C. 10-15; 10-15
D. 10-15; 20-30
Answer:
Which of the following statements is true of a panic attack?
Which of the following statements is true of a panic attack?
A. It is characterized by mental depression related to a certain season of the year.
B. It is a mood disorder in which an individual experiences loss of energy and excessive guilt.
C. It is a persistent and irrational fear of a specific situation that creates an intense desire to avoid the feared stimulus.
D. It is an unexpected and unprovoked emotionally intense experience of terror.
Answer:
One of the most common mental and emotional stress producers is:
One of the most common mental and emotional stress producers is:
A. Anxiety
B. Fear
C. Staleness
D. Complacency
Answer:
Which of the following is the final stage of Kubler-Ross's classic model of reactions to death and dying?
Which of the following is the final stage of Kubler-Ross's classic model of reactions to death and dying?
A. Acceptance
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
Answer:
Which of the following statements is true of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
Which of the following statements is true of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. It is characterized by a numbing of general responsiveness, insomnia, and increased aggression.
B. It affects any individual who has experienced a psychologically traumatic event.
C. It is treated by constantly shifting the routines of affected individuals.
D. It is characterized by behavior that involves engaging in unreasonable repetitive acts.
Answer:
During an acute reaction to a negative stress situation, _____ is released into the blood stream, causing _____.
During an acute reaction to a negative stress situation, _____ is released into the blood stream, causing _____.
A. adrenaline, muscles to become more responsive
B. epinephrine, decrease in heart and respiratory rate
C. adrenaline, pupil constriction
D. epinephrine, increased hearing acuteness
Answer:
An athlete's ability to cope with stressors depends on the athlete's:
An athlete's ability to cope with stressors depends on the athlete's:
A. Skill level
B. Cognitive appraisal
C. Intellectual ability
D. Age
Answer:
Using a host defective in proteases is likely to be necessary when engineering
Using a host defective in proteases is likely to be necessary when engineering
A) a complete metabolic pathway requiring several different enzymes.
B) overproducing proteins.
C) production of a small protein.
D) transgenic animals with immune systems.
Answer:
Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors by
Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors by
A) carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence.
B) having a multiple cloning site (MCS).
C) having a high copy number per cell.
D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.
Answer:
Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology?
Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology?
A) assembling gene sequences together into genome and creating a living organism from it
B) creating a new metabolic pathway that produces a previously unidentified compound
C) developing a novel polyvalent vaccine
D) making Escherichia coli phototrophic
Answer:
A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properly recognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations.
A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properly recognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations.
A) complex folding
B) methylation
C) glucosylation
D) glycosylation
Answer:
Recognizing pathogens that contain multiple unique proteins which enable the human immune system to recognize just one and mount an effective response has opened the door on development of some vaccines only being
Recognizing pathogens that contain multiple unique proteins which enable the human immune system to recognize just one and mount an effective response has opened the door on development of some vaccines only being
A) attenuated carrier viruses.
B) monovalent.
C) subunit vaccines.
D) purified protein administered.
Answer:
Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but are especially challenging for those who develop them, because
Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but are especially challenging for those who develop them, because
A) coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed.
B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.
C) vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome.
D) virus genetic manipulation uses transfection, which is an inherently inefficient process.
Answer:
The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is the
The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is the
A) removal of a gene responsible for feeling full after eating.
B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.
C) resistance to bacterial infections which waste metabolic energy in the salmon to fight off.
D) addition of genes to enhance blood circulation and tissue development.
Answer:
Some proteins overexpressed at high levels resulting in the formation of inclusion bodies can abolish the goal of producing large quantities of active protein. What could be done to minimize this issue?
Some proteins overexpressed at high levels resulting in the formation of inclusion bodies can abolish the goal of producing large quantities of active protein. What could be done to minimize this issue?
A) Codon optimize the gene.
B) Decrease the number of biobricks in the vector.
C) Simultaneously produce intracellular chaperonins.
D) Switch to an expression host with a larger intracellular volume.
Answer:
If a protein to be overexpressed is toxic to the expression host, it is best to select an expression vector that
If a protein to be overexpressed is toxic to the expression host, it is best to select an expression vector that
A) is compatible with a binary vector able to be regulated.
B) is inducible.
C) has a relatively low copy number per cell.
D) prevents folding of the overexpressed protein into its toxic form.
Answer:
Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?
Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?
A) gene fusion
B) operon fusion
C) protein fusion
D) shuttle vector
Answer:
Which of the following terms is used to describe a synthetic DNA fragment?
Which of the following terms is used to describe a synthetic DNA fragment?
A) DNA cassette
B) DNA hybrid
C) recombinant DNA
D) artificial chromosome
Answer:
The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulating
The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulating
A) Agrobacterium spp.
B) fish.
C) plants.
D) viruses.
Answer:
Type II restriction endonucleases
Type II restriction endonucleases
A) are heterodimers.
B) natively function to methylate specific nucleotides and prevent foreign DNA from being incorporated into the genome.
C) recognize nucleotide sequences that are palindromic.
Answer: D) require ATP energy to cleave dsDNA.
The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is
The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA phosphatase.
C) DNA hydrolase.
D) DNA transferase.
Answer:
What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?
What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?
A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated.
B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods.
C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.
D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.
Answer:
After digesting a DNA sequence, a restriction endonuclease can generate
After digesting a DNA sequence, a restriction endonuclease can generate
A) blunt ends.
B) overhangs.
C) sticky ends.
D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.
Answer:
A shuttle vector is most useful for
A shuttle vector is most useful for
A) engineering a complete metabolic pathway.
B) identifying the localization of a protein.
C) knocking out a gene by cassette displacement.
D) making a foreign protein in a mammalian cell.
Answer:
Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct?
Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct?
A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.
B) Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene.
C) Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared.
D) Translational start and stop signals are shared.
Answer:
The principle behind a nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must contain
The principle behind a nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must contain
A) a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest.
B) all of the nucleotide sequence of the gene of interest to conclusively identify the gene.
C) an antibody to specifically bind to the gene of interest.
D) at least three separate complementary regions of the gene of interest.
Answer:
Which of those listed below is LEAST similar in what is measured and concluded?
Which of those listed below is LEAST similar in what is measured and concluded?
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) GFP fusion protein
C) Northern blot
D) RT-PCR
Answer:
Which statement is TRUE?
Which statement is TRUE?
A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
B) BACs are more likely than YACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
C) YACs and BACs undergo recombination and rearrangement at about the same rate.
D) It is impossible to state with any certainty whether YACs or BACs are more likely to undergo recombination and rearrangement, because environmental factors play a major role in the probability of one or the other occurring.
Answer:
Inserting a kanamycin resistance cassette into a catabolic operon to confirm the gene is essential in degradation of a particular compound would involve all of the following EXCEPT
Inserting a kanamycin resistance cassette into a catabolic operon to confirm the gene is essential in degradation of a particular compound would involve all of the following EXCEPT
A) a reporter gene.
B) ligation.
C) recombination.
D) transformation.
Answer:
What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce a mutation at a specific site?
What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce a mutation at a specific site?
A) flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit non-complementary base pairing
B) methylated nucleotides disrupt DNA polymerase's proofreading
C) nucleotide substitution when one is depleted
D) transposase-induced base pair changes
Answer:
Which of the following is NOT a common step in creating a genomic library?
Which of the following is NOT a common step in creating a genomic library?
A) Fragment DNA into small segments.
B) Hybridize DNA sequences to form inserts of a target size range.
C) Ligate DNA into vectors.
D) Transform the vectors into a host.
Answer:
To estimate the total concentration of a beneficial bacterial species in yogurt, ________ would provide the quickest results.
To estimate the total concentration of a beneficial bacterial species in yogurt, ________ would provide the quickest results.
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) qPCR
C) RT-PCR
D) a Southern blot
Answer:
At which time period(s) during PCR thermocycling is/are hottest in temperature?
At which time period(s) during PCR thermocycling is/are hottest in temperature?
A) during DNA denaturation
B) during primer annealing
C) during primer extension/elongation
D) Both the first and last cycles are hotter in temperature than all other cycles.
Answer:
Which of the following sequences would be cleaved by a type II restriction endonuclease?
Which of the following sequences would be cleaved by a type II restriction endonuclease?
A) TTGCCGA
AACGGCT
B) GGGGGGG
CCCCCCCC
C) GTAATG
CATTAC
D) GAATTC
CTTAAG
Answer:
A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies an individual gene segment in vitro with a(n) ________ primer(s).
A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies an individual gene segment in vitro with a(n) ________ primer(s).
A) individual RNA
B) individual DNA
C) pair of RNA
D) pair of DNA
Answer:
Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot?
Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot?
A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome.
B) Discover gene function.
C) Identify regulatory gene-protein interactions.
D) Quantify expression profiles of a gene.
Answer:
To verify a gene was cloned into a vector successfully, sequencing the vector as well as ________ are commonly performed.
To verify a gene was cloned into a vector successfully, sequencing the vector as well as ________ are commonly performed.
A) agarose gel electrophoresis
B) fluorescence in situ hybridization
C) protein purification
D) northern blots
Answer:
The genes encoding luciferase, green fluorescent protein (GFP), and ß-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as
The genes encoding luciferase, green fluorescent protein (GFP), and ß-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as
A) transcription regulators.
B) global control genes.
C) promoter sequences.
D) reporter genes.
Answer:
What type of vector can replicate and be maintained stably in two (or more) unrelated host organisms?
What type of vector can replicate and be maintained stably in two (or more) unrelated host organisms?
A) virus
B) expression
C) shuttle
D) integrating
Answer:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a type II restriction endonuclease?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a type II restriction endonuclease?
A) cleavage product can be either blunt or sticky ended but is always the same for an individual enzyme
B) recognizes a specific palindromic site for cleavage
C) recognition site length varies among enzymes but is always the same for an individual enzyme
D) unable to cleave methylated DNA
Answer:
One of the more formidable obstacles to mammalian gene cloning is the presence of
One of the more formidable obstacles to mammalian gene cloning is the presence of
A) introns.
B) exons.
C) repressors.
D) integrators.
Answer:
A(n) ________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay.
A(n) ________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay.
A) encoder
B) translational
C) reporter
D) recorder
Answer:
Expression vectors are designed to ensure that ________ can be efficiently ________.
Expression vectors are designed to ensure that ________ can be efficiently ________.
A) mRNA / transcribed
B) DNA / transcribed
C) mRNA / translated
D) DNA / translated
Answer:
To discover a catabolic gene cluster, cloning large sequences of approximately 40 kbp requires the utility of
To discover a catabolic gene cluster, cloning large sequences of approximately 40 kbp requires the utility of
A) bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs).
B) cosmids or fosmids.
C) a eukaryotic host to house the large foreign DNA.
D) multiple gene fusions.
Answer:
Detecting a specific protein with an antibody is considered a(n) ________ method.
Detecting a specific protein with an antibody is considered a(n) ________ method.
A) selection
B) screening
C) isolation
D) duplication
Answer:
If a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itself
If a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itself
A) not produce the protein being studied.
B) produce the protein in larger amounts than the vector.
C) repress the genetic expression being studied.
D) produce signal proteins to tag the host protein.
Answer:
Actionable fraud would be likely to be based on falsity of:
Actionable fraud would be likely to be based on falsity of:
a. a car owner's statement that, "This car is the best buy you will find."
b. a realtor's statement that, "The contractor used 25-year warranted shingles on the roof."
c. an art dealer's statement that, "This painting will increase in value."
d. a stockbroker's statement that, "This stock should double in price within six months."
Answer:
Which of the following can meet the scienter requirement to establish fraud in the inducement?
Which of the following can meet the scienter requirement to establish fraud in the inducement?
a. Actual knowledge
b. Lack of belief in the statement's truthfulness
c. Reckless indifference as to a statement's truthfulness
d. All of the above meet the requirement.
Answer:
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